India Dynasties with their map

INDIAN DYNASTIES

Chalukya Dynasty - Chalukya Dynasty ruled in Southern part of India(Gujarat and Karnataka). The ruling period was 6th to 8th & 10th to 12th Century. The most famous rulers in the empire of the Chalukyas were Pulakesin I and Pulakesin II. Chola Dynasty - Chola Dynasty rulers ruled in Tamilnadu, Patna, Bihar, Bengal and Srilanka. The period was 300 B.C. to 1250 A.D. The most famous rulers of Chola Dynasty were Vijayalaya, Aditya-I, Rajraja Chola, etc.., Gupta Dynasty - Gupta Dynasty ruled area was Bihar, Uttar Pradesh. The ruled period was 320 - 550 A.D. The most prominent rulers of Gupta Dynasty were Chandragupta and Samudragupta. Hoysala Dynasty - They ruled the kingdom of Karnataka and their period was 10th to 14th Century, rulers of Hoysala dynasty were Nripa Kama II, Veera Ballala III,etc. Kakatiya Dynasty - Location of Kakatiya Dynasty was Andhra Pradesh. Period of Kakatiya dynasty was 1100 - 1474 A.D. Rulers of Kakatiya was Gundaya, Prola II, etc. Kalachuri Dynasty - The geographical area of Kalachuri dynasty was Central part of India( west Madhya pradesh and Rajasthan) and southern part of India(Karnataka), the Dynasty ruled from 10th - 12th Century. The founder of this dynasty was Kokalla I. Khilji Dynasty - The area of Khilji Dynasty was Northern part of India i.e. Gujarat, Malwa, Ujjain.The period when the dynasty ruled was 1201 - 1390 AD. The ruler of Khilji Dynasty was Jalaluddin Khilji Koravi Dynasty - Koravi is a name of Clan living in Karnataka, Maharashtra & Deccan region. The rulers of Korai Dynasty were Raja Sangappa II, Veera Basappa I, Shri Murusavirappa I, Jagadisha Ramappa II. Kushan Dynasty - Kushan Dynasty ruled in northern part of India(Jammu & Kashmir), in the years of 200 BC - 300 BC. The rulers of this Dynasty were Vima Takto, Vima Kadphises, Kanishka I, Vasishka, Huvishka, Vasudeva I. Lodhi Dynasty - The ruled area of Lodhi Dynasty was central part of India - Delhi, Punjab, the dynasty lasted from 1451 - 1526. Rulers of this dynasty were Buhlul Lodi, Sikandar Lodi, Ibrahim lodhi. Magadha Dynasty - The geographical area of Magadha dynasty was west part of India - Bihar & Patna, which ruled from 684 B.C. - 320 B.C. King Bindusara of the Haryanka dynasty is the founder of Magadha dynasty Maratha Empire - The Maratha empire is located in the south west of India, which ruled from 1674 - 1818, founder of Maratha empire was Shivaji Bhosale. Maurya Dynasty - The Mauryan Empire was the first major empire in the history of India and ruled the land from 322 BC to 185 BC. Important rulers of this dynasty were Chandragupta Maurya, Bindusara, and King Ashoka.Almost all of the subcontinent was conquered by the Mauryan Empire. Mughal Dynasty - The Mughals ruled from Kabul to Assam and Kashmir to Tanjore on vast regions of India, they ruled from 1526 to 1858 or 16th to 18th century. Zahiruddun Mohammed Babur founded the Mughal Emphire in India. Pala Dynasty - Pala Dynasty ruled in Bihar and Bengal regions of South Asia, in the period of 750 - 1174 AD. The founder of the Pala Dynasty was Gopala. Pallava Dynasty - Pallava Dynasty was a pastoral tribe who ruled the southern parts of India(Chennai, Andhra Pradwsh) for almost 500 years. Simha Vishnu is the founder of Pallava dynasty. Rastrakuta Dynasty- The Rashtrakuta Dynasty ruled south India i.e. Karnataka from 725 -985 A.C.E. The word Rastra in Sanskrit means region and kuta indicates Chieftains. Dantidurga of Rashtrakuta dynasty was the first and the most important king. Satavahana Dynasty - Satavahanas were referred as Andhras or the Andhra Dynasty.The Empire was established in the 3rd Century BC in the western Deccan Plateau. Simukha was the founder of Satavahana dynasty. Shashanka Dynasty- Shashanka (600-625), the first recorded independent king of Bengal, created the first unified political entity in Bengal. Tuglaq Dynasty - The founders real name was Ghazi Malik and he ruled from 1320 - 1325. He founded the city of Tughlaqabad outside Delhi. Vardhan Dynasty- Vardhan Dynasty rulers ruled in Delhi, Punjab, Bengal and Gujarat. The period was 580 - 647 AD. Prabhakara Vardhana was the one who founded the Vardhana dynasty. Vijayanagar Dynasty- The Vijayanagar Empire was a South Indian dynasty based in the Deccan i.e. Karnataka. It was founded by Harihara I and his sibling Bukka Raya in 1336, the empire ruled untill 1646.

Reference :- http://www.indianmirror.com/dyneasty/dynasty-home.html 

Samvidhaan - Episode 1/10

Importent Constitution Question for SSC Examination

In which State a separate district has been reserved for Scheduled Tribes?

(A) Assam
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala

Answer :  A

The chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the  

A.  President of India
B.  Vice President of India
C.  Prime Minister of India
D.  None of the above

 Answer B

 What is the meaning of Indian State in the Constitution?

(A) Any territory recognised by President of India
(B) Any territory before commencement of Indian Constitution by the British ruler
(C) Any territory which government of the Dominion of India recognised
(D) B & C

Answer :  D

 Who is authorised to decide over a dispute regarding disqualification of a member of parliament?  

A.  Speaker of lok sabah
B.  President
C.  Election Commisioner
D.  A committee set up by the parliament

Answer : B

 Who among the following was never the lok sabha speaker?  

A.  KVK Sundaram
B.  GS Dhillon
C.  Baliram Bahgat
D.  Hukum Singh

 AnswerA

What is the age of retirement of a Judge of a supreme  

A.  62yrs
B.  68yrs
C.  60yrs
D.  65yrs

 Answer D

The Constitution of India provides a  

A.  Presidential form Govt
B.  Cabinet System of Government
C.  Parliamentry System
D.  Bicameral System of government

 Answer B

The Indian Constitution is regarded as  

A. federal
B. unitary
C. parliament
D. federal in form and unitary in spirit

 Answer D

The part of the constitution that reflects the mind and ideals of the framers is  

A.  directive principles
B.  fundamental rights
C.  preamble
D.  Citizenship

 Answer C

The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of preamble from the  

A.  Italian Constitution
B.  Canadian Constitution
C.  French Constitution
D.  Constitution of USA

 Answer D

What is the minimum permissible age for employment in any factory or mine?  

A.  12 years
B.  14 years
C.  16 years
D.  18 years

 Answer B

Which of the following is not a condition for become a citizen of india?  

A.  Birth
B.  Descent
C.  Naturalisation
D.  Acquiring Property

 Answer D

 Who is competent to prescribe conditions as for acquiring Indian Citizenship?  

A.  State Legislatures
B.  Parliament
C.  President
D.  Attorney General

 Answer B

The Lok Sabha is also known as  

A.  Council of states
B.  The Upper House
C.  The House of the People
D.  Parliament

 Answer C

 Lok Sabha has the supremacy in which matter?

(A) Railway Budget
(B) Defence Budget
(C) Foreign affairs
(D) Financial Bill

Answer :  D

 Normally, what kind of session does the Parliament hold?

(A) Budget session
(B) Monsoon session
(C) Winter session
(D) All the above

Answer :  D

The chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the  

A.  President of India
B.  Vice President of India
C.  Prime Minister of India
D.  None of the above

 Answer B

Which schedule of the constitution of india contains special provisions for the administration andcontrol of schedule areas in several states?  

A.  Fifth
B.  Sixth
C.  Seventh
D.  Eighth

 Answer A

Who was the first Foreign Minister of free India?  

A.  Jawaharlal Nehru
B.  Gulzari Lal Nanda
C.  Lal Bahadur Shastri
D.  John Mathai

 Answer A

The idea of the constitution of india was first of all given by  

A.  Mahatama Gandhi
B.  Dr BR Ambedkar
C.  Jawaharlal Nehru
D.  MN Roy

 Answer D

The Government of India Act 1935 vested the residuary power in the  

A.  British Parliament
B.  Federal Legislature
C.  State Legislature
D.  Government General

 Answer D

India become a Sovereign democratic republic on  

A.  Aug 15, 1947
B.  Jan 30, 1948
C.  Jan 26, 1950
D.  Nov 26, 1929

 Answer C

The design of the national flag was adopted by the constituent assembly of india in  

A.  july, 1948
B.  july, 1950
C.  july, 1947
D.  august, 1947

 Answer C

Who was the president of the Constituent Assembly?  

A.  Pt Jawaharlal Prasad
B.  Dr Rajendra Prasad
C.  Dr BR Ambedkar
D.  C Rajgopalachari

 Answer B

The Constituent Assemble for undivide India first met on  

A.  6th December,1946
B.  9th December,1946
C.  20th February 1947
D.  3rd June 1947

 Answer B

The Council of States in India is generally known as  

A.  Lok Sabha
B.  Parliament
C.  Raj Sabha
D.  AD hoc Committee

 Answer C

The Presiding Chairman of the Lok Sabha is the following  

A.  Prime Minister
B.  President
C.  Vice President
D.  Elected from the Lok Sabha Members

 Answer D

In a parliament form of government real powers of the state are vested in the  

A.  President
B.  Council of Ministers headed by Prime Minister
C.  Government
D.  175 km

 Answer B

Indian President and Prime Minister are a replica of the heads of the state of which country?  

A.  Britain
B.  USA
C.  Iraland
D.  Russia

 Answer A

The President of the Indian Union has the same constitutional authority as the  

A.  President of USA
B.  President of Egypt
C.  British Monarch
D.  President of Russia

 Answer C

The inspiration of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity was derived from  

A.  French revolution
B.  American revolution
C.  Russian revolution
D.  None of these

 Answer A

The Constitution names our country as  

A.  Bharat
B.  India, that is Bharat
C.  Hindustan
D.  Aryavarta

 Answer B

Which of the following is not apart of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?  

A. Secularism
B. Socialism
C. Democratic Republic
D. Federalism

 Answer D

The source of India’s Sovereignty lies in the  

A.  President
B.  Prime Minister
C.  People of India
D.  Preamble to the constitution

 Answer D

India opted for a federal form of government because of  

A.  vast territory
B.  cultural integration
C.  linguistic and regional diversity
D.  administrative conveniece

 Answer C

In the Rajya Sabha, the President can appoint how many representatives  

A.  6
B.  8
C.  10
D.  12

 Answer D

Indian Constitution was Inaugurated on  

A.  Jan 26,1947
B.  Jan 26,1949
C.  Jan 27,1949
D.  Jan 26,1950

 Answer D

Salaries of the judgesn of the Supreme court are drawn from the  

A. Consolidated fund
B. Grants-in-aid
C. Constingency fund
D. Public Accounts

 Answer A

Who is the chairman of Rajya Sabha?  

A.  President
B.  Vice-President
C.  minister of Parliamentary
D.  Leader of Opposition

 Answer B

Which of the following states has the largest percentage of reserved parliamentary seats  

A.  Orissa
B.  Bihar
C.  Uttar Pradesh
D.  Madhya Pradesh

 Answer C

At present the rajya sabha consists of _____ members  

A.  250
B.  245
C.  238
D.  240

 Answer B

Right to Consitutional Remedies comes under  

A. fundamental rights
B. legal rights
C. consitutional rights
D. natural rights

 Answer A

Indian Constitutional recognises Minorities on the basis of  

A.  religion
B.  caste
C.  population
D.  colour

 Answer A

On Whom does the Constitution conferspecial responsibility for the enforcement of fundamental rights?  

A.  Parliament
B.  Supreme court
C.  President
D.  State legislature

 Answer B

The budget is presented by the Finance Minister to the  

A.  Prime Minister
B.  President
C.  Lok Sabha
D.  Rajya Sabha

 Answer C

The government of India has launched a new scheme for the Girl Child. What is the name of the scheme?  

A.  Raj Lakshmi
B.  Rani Bitia
C.  Dhan Lakshmi
D.  Aanandita

 Answer C

Protection of the interests of the minorities is envisaged in which of the following articles?  

A.  14
B.  29
C.  19
D.  32

 Answer B

The President’s rule in a state means that the state is ruled by  

A.  the president
B.  a caretaker government
C.  the C.M nominated by the president
D.  the governor of the state

 Answer D

Under which article of the constitution is the president’s rule promulgated on any state in India?  

A.  352
B.  356
C.  360
D.  370

 Answer B

Who administers the oath of office to the President?  

A.  Chief Justice of India
B.  Speaker of Lok Sabha
C.  Prime minister
D.  Vice President

 Answer A

 Through which constitutional amendment in article 359, it has been laid down that Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 are enforceable during the operation of emergency?

(A) 44th Amendment Act
(B) 46th Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act
(D) 48th Amendment Act

Answer : A

 On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for operation in case security of India or any part of the Indian territory is threatened?

(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) President of India
(D) Vice-President of India

Answer :  C

 Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights represents which subject?

(A) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(B) Protection in respect of Conviction of Offence
(C) Protection of life and personal liberty
(D) None of the above

Answer :   B

Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject?

(A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech
(B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence
(C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
(D) Protection of life and personal liberty

Answer :  D

Who declares the financial emergency?

(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of the above

Answer :  A

After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation without approval by the Parliament?

(A) Three Months
(B) Four Months
(C) Two Months
(D) One Month

Answer :  C

Within what period, the Parliament has to approve Financial emergency declared by the President?

(A) Six Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Four Months

Answer :  B

In Financial Emergency, salaries and allowances of which groups get reduction?

(A) Central Government Employees
(B) Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

Answer :  C

Raj Pramukh represents whom under the Indian Constitution?

(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

Answer :  C

 Under the Indian Constitution, what is the concept behind the protection of President and Governors?

(A) President & Governors are above the law
(B) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution
(C) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister
(D) President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office

Answer :  D

 By which Constitutional amendment, the appellation Rajpramukh was omitted?

(A) 7th Amendment Act 1956
(B) 4th Amendment Act 1955
(C) 6th Amendment Act 1956
(D) 10th Amendment Act 1961

Answer :  A

 Which constitutional article provides personal immunity for President and Governors for official act?

(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 361

Answer :  D

 Which constitutional article provides personal immunity to the head of the states for his official act from legal action, including proceedings for contempt of Court?

(A) Article 361
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 369

Answer :  A

 Under which constitutional articles, newspapers do not have the right to publish report of the proceedings of a secret session of either of the Houses of Parliament or Legislative Assembly & Legislative Council?

(A) 361
(B) 361A
(C) 361B
(C) 361C

Answer :  B

 Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or newspaper cannot be sued for legal proceeding if any report of proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is published?

(A) The report must be a report of the `procedings’ of a House of the Union or a State Legislature. Hence, it must be relevant to a motion or other business before the House, and must not have been expunged
(B) It must be a report as distinguished from one article or Comment’.
(C) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a garbed or perverted report would not be protected. The reporting must not be actuated by malice
(D) All of the above

Answer :  D

 Any Court including Supreme Court does not have constitutional right under Article 143 to exercise jurisdiction over any dispute arising out of any provision of which agreements that were in operation before commencement of the Constitution?

(A) Treaty, Agreement
(B) Covenant, Engagement
(C) Sanad
(D) All of the above

Answer :  D

 Before which Constitutional Amendment, Prince, Chief or other person were recognised by the President of India as the Ruler of the Indian State?

(A) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 24th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964

Answer :  A

 Under which Constitutional Amendment Privy Purses were abolished?

(A) 36th Amendment Act 1975
(B) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964

Answer :  B

 Under which Constitutional Article, Union Government has the power to give direction to the State Govt. regarding any of the provisions of the Constitution?

(A) Article 368
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 367

Answer :  C

 If any State Government fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction given by the Union Government, who can come to conclusion that a situation has arisen in which the State cannot carry out governance in accordance with the provision in the Constitution?

(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Supreme Court

Answer :  A

 Under Article 365 what are the duties of the Union Government with respect to State Governments?

(A) Ensure that every State Minister should act in accordance with the advice of Chief Minister
(B) Ensure that Governor acts under advice of the Chief Minister
(C) Ensure that Governance in the State is in accordance with the Constitution
(D) All of the above

Answer :  C

What is the meaning of Foreign State as given in our Indian Constitution?

(A) Federal State
(B) Commonwealth State
(C) Nation
(D) Any State other than India

Answer :  D

Which Constitutional article defines the work of Administrative Tribunal?

(A) Article 323A
(B) Article 233B
(C) Article 223B
(D) None of the above

Answer :  A

Under which part of the Constitution, Tribunals have been defined?

(A) Part Four
(B) Part Seven
(C) Part Fifteen
(D) part one

Answer :  C

hat is the period laid down by the Constitution before the proposal for removal of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha can be taken up by a resolution in the Lok Sabha?

(A) 15 Days
(B) 18 Days
(C) 16 Days
(D) 14 Days

Answer :  D

In Lok Sabha, who can not preside in the House while a Resolution for Removal from his office is under consideration?

(A) Speaker
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

Answer :  C

Under which Article Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha are mentioned?

(A) 97
(B) 96
(C) 95
(D) 94

Answer :  A

Which Article mentions the conduct of business of the Houses of Parliament?

(A) 99
(B) 100
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

Answer :  C

Who appoints each member of either of the Houses of the Parliament after notification is received from the Election Commission?

(A) President
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) Prime Minister

Answer :  A

Who shall not give vote in the first instance in either of the Houses of Parliament?

(A) Speaker
(B) Chairman
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

Answer :  C

When Speaker and Chairman shall give their votes on the Parliament.

(A) When Prime Minister asks them to give vote on the Bill
(B) When the House passes such a resolution
(C) In the case of a tie between Yes and No
(D) All the above

Answer :  C

What is the Quorum laid down to constitute a meeting of either of the Houses of Parliament?

(A) one-tenth of the total number of members of that House
(B) one-fourth of the total number of members of that House
(C) one-fifth of the total number of members of that House
(D) one-half of the total number of members of that House

Answer :  A

Which Article mentions disqualification of members in the Parliament?

(A) Article 101 to Article 104
(B) Article 101 to Articles 105
(C) Article 102 to Article 106
(D) Article 106 to Article 110

Answer :  A

Which session of the year, President addresses both the Houses of Parliament?

(A) First session (Budget)
(B) Second session (Monsoon)
(C) Third session (Winter)
(D) None of the above

Answer :  A

In which session of Parliament, Railway and General Budgets are presented?

(A) Monsoon session
(B) First session
(C) Winter session
(D) None of the above

Answer :  B

What is the meaning of the adjournment motion under Parliamentary procedure?

(A) Member draws attention regarding important subject-matter
(B) Member wants the House to discuss his subject-matter
(C) Member wants to raise complicated issue
(D) Member wants to draw the attention of the House to way recent matter of urgent public importance having serious consequences.

Answer :  D

Who has the power to accept adjournment in the House?

(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Speaker in the Lok Sabha and Chairman in the Rajya Sabha
(D) All the above

Answer :  C

Which authority in the Parliament has the right to adjourn the House?

(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) President
(C) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(D) Prime Minister

Answer :  A

 Who has the power to present adjournment motion in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?

(A) Minister
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Member of the said House

Answer :  D

 In the Parliament, every Bill has to pass through which stages of Reading before it becomes act?

(A) First Reading
(B) Second Reading
(C) Third Reading
(D) All the above

Answer :  D

When a Bill is passed by the Parliament and the President, what is the status of the name?

(A) Law
(B) Bill approved
(C) Bill exercised for administration
(D) Government procedure

Answer :  A

Which two houses, can have a joint sitting?

(A) Legislative Assembly and Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Council of State and Legislative Council
(D) None of the above

Answer :  B

When does the President assent the Bill?

(A) Lok Sabha passes the Bill
(B) Rajya Sabha passes the Bill
(C) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha both passed the Bill
(D) None of the above

Answer :  C

In India, when does the financial year commence?

(A) First April
(B) Second April
(C) First March
(D) Fifteenth March

Answer :  A

 On the subject of budget, demands for grant are arranged in which way?

(A) Prime Minister
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Ministry wise
(D) All the above

Answer :  C

In how many parts, the Budget is presented in Lok Sabha?

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

Answer :  B

How are the parts of the Budget known as?

(A) General Budget
(B) Railway Budget
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

Answer :  C

For which Election, one General Electoral Roll for every territorial Constituency shall exist?

(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Legislature
(D) All the above

Answer :  D

On what basis, Election to Lok Sabha and State Legislature shall be conducted?

(A) Adult Suffrage
(B) Indirect Election
(C) Direct Election
(D) None of the above

Answer :  A

Under which Constitutional Amendment, provision for minimum age as 18 years for the Indian citizen was made to become eligible to vote?

(A) 60th Amendment Act 1988
(B) 61st Amendment Act 1989
(C) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) None of the above

Answer :  B

Before 61st Amendment Act 1989, what was the age of Indian citizen eligible to vote in the Election?

(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 21
(D) 22

Answer :  C

Under Article 326, what was the Constitutional requirment for the Indian citizen not to become eligible as a voter?

(A) Non Resident
(B) Unsoundness of Mind
(C) Crime or Corrupt or Illegal practive
(D) All the above

Answer :  D

Which Constitutional Article lays down qualification for becoming a voter?

(A) Article 328
(B) Article 339
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 295

Answer :  C

Which Constitutional Article lays down qualifications for the Indian citizens for election to Parliament?

(A) Article 81
(B) Article 80
(C) Article 83
(D) Article 84

Answer :  D

Which Constitutional Article defines qualifications for the Indian citizen for election to a State Legislature?

(A) Article 173
(B) Article 175
(C) Article 177
(D) Article 178

Answer :  A

Under the Indian Constitution, what does Adult Suffrage’ signify?

(A) Children
(B) Persons
(C) Any Indian citizen who is of the age of 18 years and above
(D) None of the above

Answer :  C

Who makes law with respect to Elections for State Legislature?

(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) Government
(D) Election Commission

Answer :  A

Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328, which subject shall not be called to be questioned in any Court?

(A) Delimitation of Constituencies
(B) The allotment of seats to such Constituency
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

Answer :  C

How the election to either House of Parliament or to either House of the Legislature of the State shall be called in question in the courts whose manner of presentation may be provided made by law by appropriate Legislature?

(A) PIL (Public Interest Litigation)
(B) SLP (Special Leave Petition)
(C) Action under Article 32
(D) Election Petition

Answer :  D

Which Constitutional Article lays down the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha?

(A) Article 330
(B) Article 332
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 334

Answer :  A

Which Constitutional Article deals with `Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community’ with House of the People?

(A) Article 334
(B) Article 331
(C) Article 332
(D) Article 333

Answer :  B

Which Constitutional Article deals with representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in the Legislative Assembly?

(A) Article 334
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 336
(D) Article 333

Answer :  D

Under Article 333, how many members from the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated by the Governor in the Legislative Assembly?

(A) 8
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 3

Answer :  B

Under which Constitutional Amendment of Article 334, reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly has been laid down?

(A) 31st Amendment Act 1959
(B) 23rd Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980 & 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) All the above

Answer :  D

Before which Constitutional Amendment, 20 years were fixed for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha and State Legislature?

(A) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(B) 8th Amendment Act 1959
(C) 44th Amendment Act 1978
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

Answer :  B

Through which Constitutional Amendment, 30 years were fixed for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Assembly?

(A) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(B) 50th Amendment Act 1984
(C) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(D) 51st Amendment Act 1984

Answer :  C

Which Constitutional Amendment fixes 40 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly.

(A) 55th Amendment Act 1986
(B) 56th Amendment Act 1987
(C) 52nd Amendment Act 1985
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

Answer :  D

Which Constitutional Amendment lays down 50 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in the House of People and State Legislative Assembly?

(A) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(B) 44th Amendment Act 1928
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(D) None of the above

Answer :  A

Which Constitutional Article mentions ‘Claims of SC and ST in Govt. services and post’?

(A) Article 336
(B) Article 335
(B) Article 338
(D) Article 339

Answer :  B

In the Parliament, what is the meaning of the Government Bill?

(A) Bill presented by Ruling Party member
(B) Bill approved by the Government
(C) Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill
(D) A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament

Answer :  D

In the Second Reading, what kind of process is adopted to approve the Bill?

(A) A general discussion on the Bill
(B) Clause by clause consideration of the Bill
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

Answer :  C

Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament?

(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Member of Lok Sabha
(D) Member of Rajya Sabha

Answer :  B

 Who has the power to accord his assent or withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the parliament?

(A) President
(B) Member of the House
(C) Minister
(D) None of the above

Answer :  A

Under Article 331, how many members of the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated in Lok Sabha by the President?

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1

Answer :  C

Which Bill President can neither return nor withhold his assent?

(A) Defence Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Law Bill
(D) Financial Account Committee Bill

Answer :  B

How many Standing Committees are there in Lok Sabha?

(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 15
(D) 18

Answer :  D

Standing Committees in Lok Sabha are?

(A) Business Advisory Committee & Committee of Privileges
(B) Committee on Absence of Members from the sitting of the House & Committee on Estimates
(C) Committee on Government assurances and Committee on papers laid on the Table
(D) All the above

Answer :  D

 Financial Committees in Lok Sabha are?

(A) Committee on Estimates
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Public Undertaking Committee
(D) All the above

Answer :  D

 Ad hoc Committees in Parliament are?

(A) Committee on Draft Five Year Plan, etc.
(B) Committee in the conduct of certain members during the President Address
(C) Select or Joint Committee on Bills
(D) All the above

Answer :  D

Who appoints Ad hoc Committee on Parliament?

(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

Answer :  C

By which procedure the Indian President and American President are elected as laid down by their country’s constitution?

(A) Elected through Member of Legislature
(B) Elected by the People
(C) Elected by State Legislatures
(D) Elected by an Electoral College

Answer :  D

In what way our Indian Parliament is not Sovereign or Supreme with respect to the Constitution?

(A) In the Preamble, Constitution of India defines people of India as Sovereign
(B) Written Constitution of India
(C) Separation of Power and Checks and Blanees between the three constitutional organ
(D) All the above

Answer :  D

Who has said that basic features of the Indian Constitution do not amount to a change?

(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Government

Answer :  C

What is the nature of India’s political system?

(A) Presidential System
(B) Parliamentary System
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

Answer :  B

Which Constitutional Article was very much affected in the Supreme Court Judgement of Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala?

(A) Article 352
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 351
(D) Article 342

Answer :  B

Which constitutional article emo powers amendment in the Constitution of India?

(A) Article 368
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 357
(D) Article 359

Answer :  A

Which constitutional organ has the power to amend Constitution of India?

(A) Judiciary
(B) Executive
(C) Legislative
(D) Parliament

Answer :  D

On which subject, Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution and the same also need ratification by the State Legislature?

(A) Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 or Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI or Chapter I of Part XI
(B) Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedules of the representation of State on Parliament
(C) The Provisions of Article 368
(D) All the above

Answer :  D

 The constitution of India was adopted by the  

A.  Governor General
B.  British Parliament
C.  Constituent Assembly
D.  Parliament o India

 Answer C

Who among the following was the chairman of the drafting committee of the Indian Constitution?  

A. Rajendra Prasad
B. BR Ambedkar
C. Tej BAhadur Sapru
D. C Rajgopalachari

 Answer B

Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended for the first time?

(A) 25th Amendment Act
(B) 26th Amendment Act
(C) 24th Amendment Act
(D) 27th Amendment Act

Answer :  C

Which Supreme Court Judgement pronounced that Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged?

(A) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab A.I.R. 1967 S.C. 1643
(B) Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala A.I.R. 1973 S.C. 1961
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Rajnarain A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
(D) None of the above

Answer :  A

Who curbed the Judicial Review power of Judiciary through Amendment of the Constitution?

(A) State Legislature
(B) Parliament
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislative Council

Answer :  B

 Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian Constitution?

(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) High Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) District Court

Answer :  A

In which House, Janta Government failed to secure two-third majority for new clause under Article 368 for introducing referendum for effecting changes in certain logic features of the Constitution?

(A) Legislative Council
(B) State Legislature
(C) State Assembly
(D) Rajya Sabha

Answer :  D

Who said in his judgement that no part of our Constitution is unamendable?

(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Calcutta High Court
(C) Madras High Court
(D) Supreme Court of India

Answer :  D

 What was the important landmark judgement regarding amendment of the Constitution (Article 368)

(A) Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(B) Golak Nath vs State of Punjab
(C) Kesavananda vs State of Kerala, Minerva Mill vs. Union of India
(D) All the above

Answer :  D